Q.1 Study the data in the given table and answer the questions that follow
The table below embodies data on the number of students who appeared (A) and passed (P) in a competitive examination from four different zones (K, L, M and N) during the year 2014 to 2019.

Which of the following zones, the percentage of students who passed out to the total of those who appeared in the examination is minimum in the year 2019?

1. K

2. L

3. M

4. N

Answer: 2

Q.2 What is the difference between the total number of students who appeared in the exam and the total number of students who passed in the exam from Zone-K in all six years taken together?

1. 2060

2. 2070

3. 2080

4. 2090

Answer: 4

Q.3 What is the ratio of the number of students who passed from Zone-K in the year 2017 compared to that in 2018?

1. 7:5

2. 3:5

3. 5:7

4. 5:3

Answer: 3

Q.4 The total number of students who passed from Zone-M in all the six years taken together is approximately what percentage of the total number of students who appeared from Zone-M in all the six years taken together?

1. 56%

2. 58%

3. 60%

4. 64%

Answer: 1

Q.5 What is the average number of students who passed in the exam from all the four zones in the year 2015?

1. 528

2. 529

3. 530

4. 531

Answer: 2

Q.6 The sequence of cultural institutions is communication is

A. Family

B. School

C. Religion

D. Mass media

Choose the correct answer from the options below

1. A, B, C, D

2. B, C, D, A

3. C, D, A, B

4. D, A, B, C

Answer: 1

Q.7 Under Goal 2 of Millennium Development Goals, UN member countries were to ensure that by 2015, children everywhere, boys and girls would be able to complete a full course of

1. Primary education

2. Secondary education

3. Tertiary education

4. Skill based education

Answer: 1

Q.8 Complete the following series

9,11,15,23,39, ______?

1. 71

2. 65

3. 44

4. 68

Answer: 1

Q.9 Reflective level teaching is different from memory level teaching because the pattern of communication that is involved reflective level teaching is basically

1. Linear

2. Bottom-up

3. Interactional

4. Transactional

Answer: 4

Q.10 Which one of the following assessment procedures is conducted during an in-progress teaching-learning session?

1. Summative

2. Formative

3. Norm-referenced

4. Criterion-referenced

Answer: 2

Q.11 A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle and looking at the centre. Only D is between A and B. Only F is between A and C. E is just left of B. Who is the only one standing between E and F?

1. A

2. B

3. D

4. C

Answer: 4

Q.12 Given below are two statements

Statement I: Sum of the angles of a triangle is 180

Statement II: The sum of any two sides of a triangle is greater than the third side

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is false

Answer: 1

Q.13 Consider the following three sets of numbers

A. 2, 5, 9

B. 1, 6, 10

C. 3, 4, 8

Which of the following represents correct ascending order of the averages of three sets A, B, and C?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. C < A < B

2. B < C < A

3. B < A < C

4. C < B < A

Answer: 1

Q.14 Which of the following statements are correct?

A. N.K.N stands for New Knowledge Network

B. MOOCs are offline courses

C. National Supercomputing Mission is a Government of India initiative

D. Clock rate of CPU is measured in Gigabytes

E. Param Shivay is a super computer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. C and E only

2. B and C only

3. C and D only

4. A and E only

Answer: 1

Q.15 The product of the ages of Sagun and Srishti is 240. If twice the age of Srishti is more than Sagun’s age by 4 years, then what is Srishti’s age?

1. 15

2. 12

3. 10

4. 20

Answer: 2

Q.16 Match List I and List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III

2. A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV

3. A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

4. A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III

Answer: 3

Q.17 A man is facing south-west. If he turns 90 in the anticlockwise direction and then 135 in the clockwise direction, which direction is he facing now?

1. West

2. North- West

3. North- East

4. East

Answer: 1

Q.18 Dissolved oxygen (DO), an important parameter of water quality, is essential for survival of

1. Humans

2. Animals

3. Fish

4. Crops and vegetables

Answer: 3

Q.19 From the following, identify those features which are associated with “Indirect Instructional Strategies”

A. Guided student practice

B. Focus on concept acquisition through question-answer sessions

C. Presenting the stimulus material in small, easy to take steps

D. Problem based presentation

E. Participatory and collaborative moves stressed

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B, D and E only

2. A, B and C only

3. B, C and D only

4. C, D and E only

Answer: 1

Q.20 According to the census of 2011, which state/union territory had the minimum number of graduates in relation to its population?

1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Kerala

3. Daman and Diu

4. Chandigarh

Answer: 4

Q.21 Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Giving orders to students in the classroom is a specific form of communication

Reason R: The manner of orders depends upon the cultural background of the students involved

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

Answer: 1

Q.22 The research method which focuses on establishing causal relationships with control among variables – independent, moderator and dependent, is called

1. Ex post facto method

2. Survey method

3. Case study method

4. Experimental method

Answer: 4

Q.23 Which of the following factors are important in communication?

A. Slang

B. Cynical attitude

C. Framing

D. Priming

E. Immediacy

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. A, D and E only

4. C, D and E only

Answer: 4

Q.24 What are the characteristic features of the Quantitative Research paradigm?

A. It is hypothetico-deductive

B. It is focused on natural settings

C. It lays stress on generalizations to the population characteristics

D. It emphasizes numeric data from a large number of people

E. It says that the literature review plays a minor role but justify the problem

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C and D only

2. A, B and C only

3. B, C and D only

4. C, D and E only

Answer: – 1

Q.25 If 30% of A=0.25 of B=1/5 of C, then which of the following is true about A: B: C?

1. 10:11:12

2. 10:15:12

3. 10:12:15

4. 10:11:15

Answer: 3

Q.26 Given below are two statements

Statement I: The use of ICT in organizing teaching-learning programmes in the universities has the potential to optimise the learning outcomes

Statement II: Formative assessment provides support to enhancing the quality of teaching-learning sessions

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: 1

Q.27 Among the following elements which is typically the most abundant in dried sewage sludge?

1. Total nitrogen

2. Total Sulphur

3. Calcium

4. Total phosphorous

Answer: 3

Q.28 Identify those teaching strategies which are learner-centered

A. Cooperative learning

B. Team teaching

C. Laboratory based projects

D. Pair-share discussions

E. Lecturing with PowerPoint presentations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. A, C and D only

4. C, D and E only

Answer: 3

Q.29 Identify correct sequence of the following State Union of India in terms of increasing wind energy potential

A. Gujarat

B. Rajasthan

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. D, C, B, A

2. B, D, C, A

3. B, C, A, D

4. B, C, D, A

Answer: None

Q.30 All things which have smoke have fire;

This hill has smoke;

Therefore, the hill has smoke; and

No non-fiery things have smoke;

This hill has smoke;

Therefore, this hill is not non-fiery

The above is an example of which type of inference in Indian logic?

1. Purvavat

2. Anvayavyatireki

3. Kevalanayi

4. Kevalavyatireki

Answer: 2

Q.31 An Inter-University Center for Yogic sciences has been set up by University Grants Commission in the state of

1. Karnataka

2. Madhya Pradesh

3. Uttarakhand

4. Himachal Pradesh

Answer: 1

Q.32 URL stands for

1. Universal Resource Location

2. Universal Response Locator

3. Unified Response Location

4. Uniform Resource Locator

Answer: 4

Q.33 Match List I and List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I

2. A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I

3. A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III

4. A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I

Answer: 1

Q.34 Which one of the following is NOT a web browser?

1. Firefox

2. Facebook

3. Chrome

4. Safari

Answer: 2

Q.35 Given below are two statements

Statement I: Cache memory is faster than random access memory

Statement II: Random access memory is closer to the processor than cache memory

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: 3

Q.36 What is the usual sequence of steps in the scientific method?

A. Hypothesis making by identifying the variables

B. Felt need which is creating the problem

C. Identifying the difficulty and problem statement formulation

D. Data analysis and interpretation

E. Collection of data using appropriate research tools

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A, C, B, D, E

2. B, C, A, E, D

3. C, D, E, B, A

4. B, A, C, E, D

Answer: 2

Q.37 The full form of ‘NEAT’, a recently launched schemed of MHRD, Government of India, is

1. National Engineering Aptitude Test

2. National Educational Alliance for Technology

3. National Education Alliance for Testing

4. National English Aptitude Test

Answer: 2

Q.38 Asidha is a fallacy when the middle term is

1. Unproved

2. Too wide

3. Too narrow

4. Non-exclusive

Answer: 1

Q.39 When did the United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) and the International Program in Environmental Education (IEEP) come into existence?

1. 1972

2. 1975

3. 1982

4. 1992

Answer: None

Q.40 In communication, interpretation of the message depends upon

1. The context

2. Transmission speed

3. Associated noise

4. Channel efficiency

Answer: 1

Q.41 Given below are two statements

Statement I: Qualitive research paradigm emphasizes participant perspectives and uses an empirico-inductive approach

Statement II: In the same research project, it is neither possible nor desirable to use both Qualitative and Quantitative research paradigms

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: 3

Q.42 Identify the correct sequence of sectoral global CO2 emissions in increasing order as per IPCC (2014) report

A. Electricity and heat production

B. Buildings

C. Transportation

D. Industry

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. B, C, D, A

2. B, C, A, D

3. B, D, C, A

4. B, D, A, C

Answer: 1

Q.43 Identify sampling procedures in which units are chosen giving an equal and independent chance

A. Quota sampling procedure

B. Stratified sampling procedure

C. Dimensional sampling procedure

D. Random sampling procedure

E. Systematic sampling procedure

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. C, D and E only

4. B, D and E only

Answer: 4

Q.44 RAM is placed on

1. Hard Disk

2. Extension board

3. Motherboard

4. USB

Answer: 3

Q.45 Given below are two statements

Statement I: A deemed to be university is a non-affiliating university

Statement II: The teacher-student ratio in a deemed to be university must not be less than 1:10

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Answer: 3

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

In Skinner’s system, reinforcement is automatic, almost by definition. Perhaps the most convincing demonstration of the automatic effect of a reinforcer is what Skinner (1948) has called “superstitious behaviour”. In this situation, an event known to be reinforcing is presented intermittently without respect to what the subject is doing. But if it is doing anything (and this can be made likely through deprivation, etc.), the response just prior to the delivery of the reinforcer is strengthened, as evidenced by an increase in its rate of emission. The subject comes to “act as if” the response that has been fortuitously strengthened somehow produces the reinforcement. This occurs even though the reinforcer is actually delivered by a mechanical device that is in no way responsive to the subject’s behaviour.

The automatic effect of reinforcement is also illustrated in Skinner’s effective techniques of shaping behaviour. These procedures could hardly have sprung from a point of view that regarded all behaviour as elicited. But with the organism viewed as “emitting” the varied responses already in his repertoire, it was an easy step to conceive of shaping. If the observer simply controlled the quick presentation of a reinforcer, then he could strengthen any behaviour the organism happened to emit. Responses not in the subject’s repertoire could then be built into it by appropriate arrangements of environmental conditions and the successive approximation technique.

Q.46 The procedure of shaping a subject’s behaviour is related to his

A. Susceptibility

B. Desire for reinforcement

C. Responses already in his repertoire

D. Responses reinforced by approximation techniques

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. B and C only

3. C and D only

4. A and D only

Answer: 3

Q.47 According to Skinner, the superstitious behaviour of individual is the outcome of

1. Constant exposure to an event

2. Exposure to an event without regularity

3. Occasional exposure to an event

4. Natural exposure to an event

Answer: 2

Q.48 The delivery of the reinforcer gets strengthened due to

1. The subject involvement in the event

2. Increase in the rate of reinforcement

3. Factors such as deprivation

4. The use of a mechanical device

Answer: 3

Q.49 The responses that are not in the emission list of a subject, can be observed by

1. Coercive measures

2. Creating suitable environmental conditions

3. Inhibiting his natural emission behavior

4. Using mechanical devices for reinforcement

Answer: 2

Q.50 The example of a mechanical device reinforcing the subject’s behaviour demonstrates

1. The automatic effect of reinforcement

2. The illusion of reinforcement

3. The discrepancy in subject’s behaviour

4. The belief that every reaction is an act of reinforcement

Answer: 1